1.The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:
(A) the number of children born per 1000 people in the popula- tion in a year
(B) the number of children born to a couple in their lifetime in a given population
(C) the birth rate minus death rate
(D) the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age
2.Consider the following state- ments:
1.In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjust- ment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India
2.In India, Foreign Institu- tional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3.In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
3.In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
1.Insurance Companies
2.Pension Funds
3.Retail Investors
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
4.Consider the following:
1.Exchange-Traded (ETF) Funds
2.Motor-vehicles
3.Currency swap
Which of the above is/are consi-. dered financial instruments?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
5.With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Economic Sector
activity
1.Storage of agricultural produce-Secondary
2.Dairy farm – Primary
3.Mineral exploration -Tertiary
4.Weaving cloth –
Secondary
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
6.Consider the following mate- rials:
1.Agricultrual residues
2.Corn grain
3.Wastewater sludge treatment
4.Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sus- tainable Aviation Fuel ?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) Only 1, 3 and 4
7.With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
Items Category
1.Farmer’s plough –
Working capital
2.Computer – fixed capital
3.Yarn used by the weaver – Fixed capital
4.Petrol – Working capital
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
8.4 Which one of the following words/phrases is most appro priately used to denote, an Inter-operable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items” ?
(A) Big data analytics
(B) Cryptography
(C) Metaverse
(D) Virtual matrix
9.With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign, banks, consider the following statements:
1.There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2.For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
10.With reference to Corporate So- cial Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
1.CSR rules specify that expenditures that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be con- sidered as CSR activities.
2.CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
11.With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
1.RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
2.RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3.RTGs can use Plutonium- 238, which is a by product of weapons development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
12.Consider the following state- ments:
Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and State- ment-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(B) Both Statement-I and State- ment-II are correct, but State- ment-II does not explain State- ment-I
(C) Statement-l is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
13.Which one of the following is synthesised in human body following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increased blood flow?
(A) Nitric oxide
(B) Nitrous oxide
(C) Nitrogen dioxide
(D) Nitrogen pentoxide
14.Consider the following acti- vities:
1.Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2.Monitoring of precipitation
3.Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above acti- vities can be the radars be used?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None of the above
15.Consider the following aircraft:
1.Rafael
2.MiG-29
3.Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth fighter aircraft? generation
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None of the above
16.In which of the following are hydrogels used?
1.Controlled drug following delivery in patients
2.Mobile systems air-conditioning
3.Preparation of industrial lubricants
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
17.Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
(A) Hydrogen peroxide
(B) Hydronium
(C) Oxygen
(D) Water vapour
18.Recently, the term ‘pumped- storage hydropower’ is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
(A) Irrigation of terraced crop fields
(B) Lift irrigation of cereal crops
(C) Long duration storage energy
(D) Rainwater system harvesting
19 ‘Membrane Bioreactors’ are often discussed in the context of:
(A) Assisted reproductive tech- nologies
(B) Drug delivery nanotechno- logies
(C) Vaccine production techno- logies
(D) Wastewater treatment tech- nologies
20.With reference to the Indian economy, “Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations are the instruments of
(A) Bond market
(B) Fores market
(C) Money market
(D) Stock market
21.Consider the following airports:
1.Donyi Polo Airport
2.Kushinagar International Airport
3.Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1,2 and 3
22.With reference to water vapour, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2.Its percentage is maximum at the poles
Select the answer using the code given below:
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
23.Consider the following descrip tion:
1.Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2.Precipitation throughout the year. occurs
3.Precipitation varies between 50 cm-250 cm.
What is this type of climate?
(A) Equatorial climate
(B) China type climate
(C) Humid subtropical climate
(D) Marine West coast climate
24.With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2.It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(A) is a platform for accelera- ting the transition towards faod and water systems that are net- zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience
(B) It is an international alliance. and a network of individuals and farming organisations interested in supporting and strengthening the development of the organic animal husbandry
(C) It is a digital platform fully integrated with service providers and built on blockchain that lets buyers, sellers and third parties trade fertilizers quickly and securely
(D) It is a platform with the mission of encouraging the farmers to form Farmer Product Organisations or Agribusiness Consortiums, thus facilitating the access to global open markets to sell their products
47.Consider the following:
1.Battery storage
2.Biomass generators
3.Fuel cells
4.Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
48.Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree ?
(A) Fig
(B) Mahua
(C) Sandalwood
(D) Silk cotton
49.Consider the following:
1.Butterflies
2.Fish
3.Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) All three
(D) None of the above
50.Consider the following:
1.Cashew
2.Papaya
3.Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
(A) Only one
(B)Only two
(C) All three
(D) None of the above
Consider the following statements:
Statement-1: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-ll There have military takeovers/coups d’etat in several countries of the Sahel 54. With region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(B) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct but Statement-Il does not explain Statement-l
(C) Statement-l is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
52.Consider the following state- ments:
Statement-1 India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-1
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-ll is incorrect
(D)Statement-l is incorrect,but Statement-Il is correct
53.With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration.
1.He/She shall not preside.
2.He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3.He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
54.With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1.A bill pending in the Lok Sabha dapses on its disso- lution.
2.A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3.A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
55.With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1.Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2.Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India proro- gating the House which is in session.
3.Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the Presi- dent of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
56.Consider the following state ments:
Statement-1: The European Par- liament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-ll The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore, aims to develop all of its own technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and State- ment-II are correct and State- ment-II explains State-ment-1
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-l
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Consider the following state- nents:
Statement-I : Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-1
(B) Both Statement-L and State- ment-II are correct, but State- ment-II does not explain State- ment-l
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
58.With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisa- tion Programme, consider the following statements:
1.To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2.Under the Scheme, Cadas- tral Maps are digitised.
3.An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
59.With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:
1.This scheme guarantees a minimum package of ante- natal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pre- gnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any governmental health facility.
2.Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
60.With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana consider the following statements.
following statements:1.The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2.Age specific contribution shall be made by the bene- ficiary.
3.Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a mini- mum pension of ₹ 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4.Family pension is appli- cable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1,3 and 4
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 2
(D) 1, 2 and 4
61.Consider the following state- ments regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:
1.Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2.This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3.There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
62.Which of the following state- ments about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?
1.This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2.It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3.Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4.Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
63.A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
(A) a government officer pro- hibiting him from taking a particular action
(B) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition
(C) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case
(D) the Government prohi- biting it from following an unconstitutional policy
64.Consider the following state- ments:
1.It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2.A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
65.With reference to Union Budget, consider the following state- ments:
1.The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parlia- ment
2.At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recom mendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither I nor 2
66.Who of the following is the author of the books The India Way’ and Why Bharat Matters?
(A) Bhupender Yadav
(B) Nalin Mehta
(C) Shashi Tharoor
(D) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
67.Consider the following pairs:
Country Reason
for being
in the news
1.Argentina- Worst economic crisis
2.Sudan – War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3.Turkey – Rescinded its membership of NATO
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(A) Only one pair
(B) Only two pair
(C) Only three pair
(D) None of the pairs
68.Consider the following state- ments:
Statement-1: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe. A
Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(B) Both Statement-I and State- ment-II are correct, but State- ment-II does not explain State- ment-I
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but 74. Statement-II is correct
9.Consider the following state- ments:
1.The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2.No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
70.According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the lar- gest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
(A) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(B) Ships using fossil fuels
(C) Extraction of metals from ores
(D) Power plants using fossil 76. fuels
71.Who was the President of the Provisional Constituent
Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) T.T. Krishnamachari
(D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
72.With reference to the Govern- ACADEM ment of India Act, 1935, consi- der the following statements :
1.It provided for the establish- ment of art All India Federa- tion based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2.Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
73.Which of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
(A) Kavyalankara
(B) Natyashastra
(C) Madhyama-vyryoga
(D) Mahabhashya
74.Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a com- mentary on:
(A) Prajnaparamita Sutra
(B) Visuddhimagga
(C) Sarvastivada Vinaya
(D) Lalitavistara
75.Consider the following proper- ties included in the World Heri- tage List released by UNESCO:
1.Shantiniketan
2.Rani-ki-Vav
3.Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4.Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above proper- ties were included in 2023?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
76.As per Article 368 of the Con- ‘stitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of :
1.Addition
2.Variation
3.Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
77.Consider the following tries: coun-
1.Italy
2.Japan
3.Nigeria
4.South Korea
5.South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declin- ing population?
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1, 3 and 5
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) Only 3 and 5
78.Which of the following state- ments are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ?
1.Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2.A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3.The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4.Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted, by the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 1, 3 and 4
79.Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three ser- vices of Indian Defence forces ?
S. No. Army Airforce
1.Brigadier – Air Commodore
2.Major General- Air Vice Marshal- Vice Admiral
3.Major – Squadron Leader – Lieutenant Commander
4.Lieutenant Colonel- Group Captain –
Captain
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
80.The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the follow- ing members?
1.Governor of the Constituent State.
2.Chief Minister of the Con- stituent State.
3.Three Members to be nomi- nated by the President of India.
4.The Home Minister of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 1, 3 and 4
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
81.Consider the following state- ments:
Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II : The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in res8 of the above statements?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and State- ment-II are correct and State- ment-II explains Statement-I
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-ll doesn’t explain Statement-I
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
82.Consider the following statements:
Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/ lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(C) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(D) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
83.Consider the following state- ments in respect of the digital rupee:
1.It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2.It appears as a liability on the RBI’s balance sheet.
3.It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4.It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
84.With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the follow- ing epithets?
1.Nayaputta
2.Shakyamuni
3.Tathagata
Select, the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) None of the above are epithets of Gautama Buddha
85.Consider the following information:
S. No.–> Archaeological state–> State–> Description
1.Chandraketugarh->Odi-sha- Trading Port town
2.Inamgaon – Maharashtra – Chalcolithic site
3.Mangadu – Kerala- Mega6 site
4.Salihundum – AndhraPradesh- Rock- cut cave shrines
Andhra Prad
In which of the above rows is the given information correctly. matched ?
(A) 1 and 2
(D) ‘1 and 4
(C) 3 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
86.Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
(A) Krishnadevaraya
(B) Narasimha Saluva
(C) Muhammad Shah III
(D) Yusuf Adil Shah
87.With reference to the revenue co- llection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:
1.Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2.Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
88.Consider the following statements:
1.There are no parables in Upanishads.
2.Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
89.Consider the following state- ments:
1.India is a member of the International Grains Council
2.A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting importing rice and wheat! Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
90.Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
(A) Chhau dance
(B) Durga puja
(C) Garba dance
(D) Kumbh mela
91.How many Delimitation Commi- ssions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
92.The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitu- tion to include which of the Occupation/ following languages?
1.Konkani
2.Manipuri
3.Nepali
4.Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
93.Consider the following pairs:
Party Its Leader
1.Bharatiya Jana Sangh-
Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2.Socialist Party- C.Rajagopalachari
3.Congress for Democracy- Jagjivan Ram
4.Swatantra Party – Acharya Narendra Dev
How many of the above are correctly matched ?
(A) Only one
(B) Only two
(C) Only three
(D) All four
94.Which of the following state. ments are correct about the Constitution of India?
1.Powers of the Municipalities are given in. Part IX A of the Constitution.
2.Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3.Provisions related to the amendment of the Consti- tution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below :
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
95.Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
(A) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List
(B) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List
(C) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List
(D) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List
96.Under which of the following Articles of the Consititution of Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy ?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 16
(C) Article 19
(D) Article 21
97.What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1.Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2.Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3.Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-services matters
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
(A) Operation Sankalp
(B) Operation Maitri
(C) Operation Sadbhavana
(D) Operation Madad
99.The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
(A) Canada and the United States of America
(B) Chile and Argentina
(C) China and India
(D) Kazakhstan and Russian Federation
- Which of the following state- ments about the Ethics Com- mittee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1.Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2.Only a member of the Lok Sabha can make a com- plaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3.This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3 ANSWERS
1 – D 2- D
3- D 4- D
5- B 6- C
7- B 8- C
9- B 10-A
11- B 12- D
13- A 14-C
15-D 16- D
17-D 18- C
19- D 20- C
21- A 22- A
23- D 24- C
25- D 26-B
27- D 28- A
29- C 30- C
31- D 32- A
33- D 34- A
35- C 36- B
37- A 38- B
39- A 40- B
41- C 42-A
43-D 44-A
45- A 46- A
47- D 48- A
49- C 50- A
51- A 52- D
53- A 54- B
55-C 56- C
57-D 58-D
59-B 60-B
61-C 62-D
63-C 64-B
65-B 66-D
67-B 68-A
69-C 70-D
71-D 72-A
73-C 74-C
75-B 76-D
77-A 78-C
79-D 80-A
81-A 82-C
83-D 84-B
85-B 86-A
87-B 88-B
89-A 90-C
91-D 92-A
93-B 94-D
95-C 96-D
97-D 98-C
99-A 100-C Explanation:-
1.(D) Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a standard demographic indicator used internationally to estimate the average number of children that a woman would have over the child bearing years (i.e., age 15-19) based on the current birth rate.
2.(D) Liquidity Adjustment Faci- lity refers to the RBI’s operations through which if injects/absorbs liquidity into/from the banking system. It consists of overnight as well as term repo/reverse repos (fixed as well as variable rates), standing deposit facility, and marginal standing facility.LAF facility is available only for scheduled commercial banks.
3.(D) Major players in the G-secu- rities and corporate bonds are commercial banks, and primary dealers besides institutional investors like insurance com- panies, pension funds. Other participants include coopera- tive banks, RRB, Mutual Funds, Provident Funds and Pension Funds. FPIs are allowed to parti- cipate in G-securities market within the quantitative limits. Corporates also buy/sell the G- securities to manage their over- all portfolio.
4.(D) Motor vehicles are not con- sidered financial instrument but ETF and currency swap are financial instruments. Financial instrument’s value is ‘derived’ from an underlying assets such
as a share, commodity or index. A. currency swap is an agree- ment in which two parties exchange the principal amount of a loan and the interest in one currency for the principal and interest in another currency.
5.(B) Storage of agricultural pro- duce is an activity of tertiary sector, dairy farm is in Primary Sector, mineral exploration is a primary activity, while weaving cloth comes under secondary sector.
6.(C)
7.(B) Farmers plough and a com-plough and a computer are example of fixed capital, while yarn used by the weaver and petrol are example of working capital.
8.(C) In his book “The Metaverse: And how it will Revolutionise Everything, author and investor Mathew Ball defined the Met- averse as, “A massively scaled and interoperable network of real-time rendered 3D virtual worlds that can be experienced synchronously and persistently by an effectively unlimited num- ber of users with an individual sense of presence and with con- tinuity of data such as identity, history, entitlements, objects communications and payments.”
9.(B) The minimum start-up capital requirement for wholly
owned subsidiary of a foreign bank would by 3 billion and the WOS shall be required to maintain a capital adequacy ratio of 10% or as may be prescribed from time to time on a conti- nuous basis, from the com- mencement of its operations. Further, not less 50% of the directors should be Indian nationals resident in India.
10.(A) Rule 2(1) (d) (iv) of the Com- panies (CSR Policy), Rules 2014 states that any activity bene- fiting employees of the company shall not be considered as eligible CSR activity.
Every company which needs to comply with the CSR provisions have to spend 2% of the average net profits made during the pre- ceding 3 years.
11.(B) Radiation isotope thermo- electric generators (RTGS) con- vert heat from radioactive decay into electricity using thermo- couples. They provide power for spacecraft and remote instal- lations and reliable energy for decades.
Radiation-isotope thermoelectric generators are not miniature fission reactors. These use the natural radioactive decay of plutonium-238 (a byproduct of weapons development) to gene- rate heat, which is then con- verted into electricity using a thermocouple. There is no nuclear fission in RTG.”
Radiation-isotope thermoelectric generators provide electrical power for spacecraft, especially
in situations where solar power is impractical or insufficient.
12.(D) Giant stars have shorter life- spans than dwarf stars because their massive cores burn through nuclear fuel more quickly, and their overall lifespan is shorter. Giant stars, because of their higher mass, are hotter and denser. As a result, giant stars have higher rates of nuclear reactions. These intense nuclear reactions contribute to their luminosity and energy pro- duction.
13.(A) Nitric oxide (NO) is synthe- sized in the human body and plays an important role in
vasodilation. It relaxes the blood vessela, improves blood flow, and supplies oxygen to the tissues Nitre oxide is chemical compound that plays an important role in cell metabolism. It is also important for coordinating tissue energy demand with supply. It also acts as a neuro-transmitter and is involved in a variety of func tions, including neuronal activity and learning.
14.(C) Radar uses radio waves to detect and locate objects by transmitting and analyzing reflected signals. Radars enable accurate tracking and survei llance over long distances and in a variety of conditions. Radar can be used to detect contraband (such as drugs) at airports or on passengers in aircraft. Weather radars are helpful in monitoring and tracking rainfall, measuring rainfall intensity, and predicting weather patterns. Also, radar can be used to track the migration of animals, espe- cially birds and bats.
15.(D) Fifth generation aircraft are advanced multi-role fighter jets. capable of operating in extre- mely austere combat environ- ments against the most advan- ced current and potential threats. India does not yet have fifth generation aircraft. The Cabinet Committee on Security in March 2024 (CCS) has approved the project for the design and deve- lopment of India’s fifth genera- tion combat aircraft, the Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA). Countries with fifth generation fighter aircraft include America (F-22 Raptor, F-35A Lightning ll),China (J-20 Mighty Dragon)and Russia (Sukhoi Su-57).
16.(D) Hydrogels are polymeric materials that are hydrated and highly cross-linked on a three- dimensional (3D) level and have high elasticity and the ability to swell and shrink depending on the hydration level of their stru- cture. They are used in medical applications, such as wound dressings, drug delivery systems, and tissue engineering.
- Hydrogels are widely used in controlled drug delivery systems because they can encapsulate drugs and release them in a controlled manner over time.
- Hydrogels can be used in mo-bile air-conditioning systems because they can absorb and release moisture, which is useful in humidity control.
- Hydrogels can be used in industrial lubricants to improve their properties, such as reducing friction and wear and improving thermal stability.
17.(D) Fuel-Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) are powered by hydro- gen. These are more efficient than conventional internal com- bustion engine vehicles and produce no harmful tailpipe emissions. They emit only water vapor and hot air.
18.(C) Pumped Storage Hydro- power (PSH) plants are storage systems based on hydropower operations between two or more reservoirs (upper and lower) with an elevation difference. At the time of demand, downward water flow generates electricity with a hydraulic turbine, and water is pumped back to the upper reservoir using power from grid or RE sources, with an overall efficiency of 75-80%.
19.(D) ‘Membrane bioreactors’ are widely discussed in the context of industrial wastewater treat- ment technologies. This techno- logy combines biological treat- ment (using microorganisms) with membrane filtration to efficiently remove pollutants ” from waste water. These mem- branes act as barriers, allowing clean water to pass through while retaining suspended solids and microorganisms.
20.(C) Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO) is a money market instrument intro- duced by the Clearing Corpora- tion of India Ltd. (CCIL) with effect from January 20, 2003. In the CBLO market financial entities can avail short term loans by providing prescribed securities as collateral. In terms of functioning and objectives, the CBLO market is almost similar to the call money market.
21.(A) Under the Green Field Air- ports Policy 2008, Gol has accorded ‘In Principle’ approval for setting up of 21 Green Field Airports namely: Mopa (Goa); Navi Mumbai, Shirdi and Sindhudurg (Maharashtra); Kalaburgi, Vijayapura Shiva- moga (Karnataka); Dabra (MP); Kushinagar and Noida (Jewar, UP), Dholera and Hirasar (Gujarat); Karaikal (Pudu- cherry); Dagadarthi; Bhoga- puram and Orvakal (Andhra Pradesh); Durgapur (West Bengal); Pakyong (Sikkim); Kannur (Kerala); Donyi Polo Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh).
22.(A.) Statement 1 is correct: The partial pressure of water vapour in the atmosphere decreases dramatically with height. Atmos- pheric water vapour drops significantly with latitude.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The amount of water vapour in the atmosphere at the equator is nearly 10 times that at the poles.
23.(D) The marine west coast climate is found in regions such as North-western Europe, the western coast of North America, northern California, southern Chile, south-eastern Australia, and New Zealand. Due to the ocean’s influence, the tempera- ture remains moderate, with relatively warmer winters com- pared to other areas at the same latitude. In summer, the average temperature ranges from 15°- 20°C, while in winter, it ranges from 4°-10°C. Both annual and daily temperature ranges are minimal. Precipitation is evenly distributed throughout the year, with amounts varying from 50- 250 cm.
24.(C) Statement 1 is correct: The coriolis force is directly related to the wind speed, meaning that as the wind speed increases, so does the strength of the coriolis force. When the wind speed is at a standstill, there is no coriolis force present. As an object’s speed increases, its inertia also increases, requiring a greater force to alter its course. The coriolis force, acting perpendi- cular to the wind’s direction (to the right in the Northern Hemis- phere), does not impact the wind speed but rather alters its direction. It is important to note that the coriolis force does not create wind, but rather influen- ces its path.
Statement 2 is correct The magnitude of the coriolis force depends on latitude. At the equator the coriolis force is zero and it increases towards the poles.
25.(D) Statements 2 and 4 are correct: The longest day of the summer is the summer solstice, which occurs on June 21. It occurs when the sun is exactly overhead the Tropic of Cancer, or precisely over 23-5 degrees north latitude. This day is dis- tinguished by an increased amount of energy obtained from the sun. The day length is around 13 hours. At the Arctic Circle, the sun never sets during the solstice. Following the Summer Solstice, the sun begins to sink toward the horizon.
26.(B) The Congo Basin, together with Brazil and Indonesia, houses the largest tropical peat lands in the world. Within the Congo Basin, the peat swamp forest acts as storage for approximately 29 billion tons of carbon, this is roughly equiva- lent to three years’ worth of
of global greenhouse gas emissions. Additionally, the entire Basin absorbs nearly 1.5 billion tons of carbon dioxide annually. This vast region spans across six countries, namely Cameroon, • Central African Republic, Demo- cratic Republic of the Congo, Congo, Equatorial Guinea, and Gabon. Unfortunately, the climate crisis has led to more frequent extreme weather events, exacerbating issues such as food and water scarcity, impacting global economies, and posing threats to human well-being.
27.(D) Statement 1 is correct: Per- fluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are synthetic chemicals found in many products, such as clothing, carpets, fabrics for furniture, adhesives, paper packaging for food, and heat-resistant/non-stick cookware. They are also present in fire-fighting foams (or aqueous film forming foam; AFFF) used by both civilian and military firefighters.
Statement 2 is correct: PFAS are persistent (i.e., they do not break down) in the environment, and since they are used in the manu- facturing of so many products, they are widespread inter- nationally.
Statement 3 is correct: Accord- ing to the Agency for Toxic Substances artd Disease Registry (ASTDR), some studies and suggest that certain PFAS may be associated with:
▪ Bioaccumulation in Animal bodies
▪ Fertility issues and pregna- ncy-induced hypertension/ preeclampsia
▪ Increased cholesterol
▪Changes in the immune system
- (B) 29. (B)
30.(C) Statement I is correct: Under schedule V of Indian Wildlife
Protection Act 1972 and International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) species is labeled as ‘vermin’ on the impression that it. poaches ripe fruits from orchards and defecates in public places. Which causes and car- riers various harmful diseases.
Statement II is incorrect: The Indian flying fox is frugi-vorous or nectarivorous, i.e., it eats fruits or eat blossoms and drink nectar from flowers. It is a primarily generalist feeder.
31.(D) Statement I is incorrect: The earth after being heated itself 36. (B) Gon becomes a radiating body and it radiates energy to the atmos- phere in long wave form. This energy heats up the atmosphere from below. This process is known as terrestrial radiation. Statement II is correct: The long wave radiation is absorbed by the atmospheric gases particularly by carbon dioxide and the other greenhouse gases.
(A) Statement I is correct: The. troposphere is the lowermost layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is 13 km and extends roughly to a height of 8 km near the poles and about 18 km at the equator.
Statement II is correct: Thick- ness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator because heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
33.(D) All statement are correct: The materials which are thrown out during volcanic activity are: lava flows, pyroclastic debris, volcanic bombs, ash, dust and gases such as nitrogen com- pounds, sulphur compounds and minor amounts of chlorine, hydrogen and argon.
34.(A) Statement 1 is Correct: In January the isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. This can be seen on the North Atlantic Ocean.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The presence of warm ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic drift, make the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer and the isotherms bend towards the north.
35.(C) During the previous cocoa season, approximately 4.9 million metric tonnes of cocoa were cultivated on a global scale. Côte d’Ivoire and Ghana stand out as the leading cocoa-producing nations, contributing to nearly 60% of the total cocoa produc- tion worldwide. Ecuador follows closely behind with a 9% share. In terms of Asian production, Indonesia holds the title of the largest cocoa producer.
36.(B) Gomti river meets river Ganga near Saidpur, Kaithi, 27 kilometers from Varanasi dis- trict. Ghaghara river joins river Ganga near Chhapra, Bihar. Gandak river joins river Ganga at Hajipur town near Patna. Kosi river joins river Ganga near Kursela in the Kathihar district of Bihar.
37.(A) Statement 1 is correct: Rainfall and temperature can affect the rate in which rocks weather. High temperatures and greater rainfall increase the rate of chemical weathering.
Statement 2 is correct: Normal rain has a pH of about 5-6; it is slightly acidic because carbon dioxide (CO₂) dissolves into it forming weak carbonic acid.
Statement 3 is Correct: Solid particles (Dust) and gases (Ο CO2, NO3, H2S…) in the atmos- phere are dissolved in rainwater resulting in a wide range in chemical composition, as well as variation in pH.
38.(B) The nations bordering the North Sea consist of the United Kingdom, France, Belgium, the Netherlands, Germany, Den- mark, and Norway.
39.(A) Rows 1 is incorrect: Dhuadhar Falls is in Jabalpur district of Madhya Pradesh. It originates from Narmada river Jabalpur is located in Maha- koshal region.
Rows 2 is correct: Hundru waterfall in Jharkhand, Chota Nagpur region and on the Subarnarekha river.
Rows 3 is incorrect: Gersoppa waterfall located in the western Ghat and on the Sharavathi river.
40.(B) Rows 1 is incorrect: Vosges is Block Type Mountain and located in France.
Rows 2 is incorrect: Alps is in Europe and type Fold Mountain.
Rows 3 is correct: Appalachians is in North America and type of Fold Mountain.
Rows 4 is correct: Andes is in South-America and type of Fold Mountain.
41.(C) Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater are not birds, fish and reptiles. All three are insects. Male cicadas are disting- uished by their unique voice. Spi-ttlebugs, or froghoppers, are renowned for their long-dis- tance jumping prowess. Because of surface tension and specially designed legs, pond skaters, also known as water striders, are insects that can walk on water.
42.(A) Chewing gum is predomi- nantly made from synthetic rubber, which is essentially a form of plastic. As we chew,. these gum particles break down into tiny pieces, often referred to as microplastics.
These microplastics pose a signi- ficant problem as they don’t biodegrade but persist in the environment for years.
43.(D) Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Indris are found in the north- eastern part of Madagascar, residing in coastal and montane rainforest from sea level to 1,800 m.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Elk were once found across much of North America but they were killed off and driven to take refuge in more remote locations. Today they live primarily in western North America, especially in moun- tainous landscapes such as Wyoming’s National Elk Refuge and Yellowstone National Park.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched : Wild bonobos can only be found in forests south of the Congo River in the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC).
They weren’t recognized as a separate species until 1929. As the last great ape to be scientifically described, much remains unknown about the bonobo – Including the extent of its geographic range.
44.(A) Statement 1 is incorrect : Founded on 19 November, 2001, World Toilet Organization (WTO) is a global non-profit committed to improving toilet and sanitation conditions world- wide.
Statement 2 is correct: The World Toilet Organization (WTO) achieved several mile- stones in promoting global sani- tation. In 2001, it established World Toilet Day and the World Toilet Summit, followed by the World Toilet College in 2005. A significant achievement came on 24 July, 2013, when 122 countries co-sponsored a UN resolution to designate 19 November as World Toilet Day. WTO gained consultative status with the UN Economic and Social Council that year. This recognition highlights growing awareness, echoed in Sustainable Develop- ment Goal #6, which aims for universal access to sanitation and an end to open defecation by 2030.
Statement 3 is incorrect: WTO empowers individuals through education, training and building local market- place opportunities to advocate for clean and safe sanitation facilities in their communities.
45.(A) Statement 1 is correct: Lions do not have a specific breeding season, unlike some other animals that reproduce during particular times of the year. This adaptability allows them to respond to changing environ- ental conditions and ensures a more continuous reproductive cycle.
Statement 2 is correct: Unlike most other big cats like lions, tigers, and leopards, cheetahs do not have the physiological ability to roar. Instead, they communicate through a variety of vocali- zations including purrs, growls, hisses, and chirps.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Leo- pards employ various methods to mark their territories due to their keen senses. Both males and females use urine marking, with males often scraping the ground after urinating to trans- fer scent onto their feet during territorial patrols. Additionally, leopard rub their faces and necks on vegetation, transferring secretions from cheek glands that carry olfactory messages to communicate with other leo- pards in their territory.
46.(A) 100 million farmers is an initiative under World Econo- mic Forum for building farmer resilience for food security, in support of a transition to net- zero and nature positive food and water system by 2030.
47.(D) Distributed energy resources (DER) often refer to small gene- rating units that are located on the consumer side of the meter. Distributed energy resources are small, modular energy production and storage technologies that provide electrical capacity or energy where you need it. Distributed energy include: resources
- Wind-generating units
- Battery storage
- Roof-top solar photovoltaic units
- Biomass generator
- Fuel cell
- Open- and closed-cycle gas turbines
- Reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)
- Use of batteries in electric vehicles
48.(A) Option (A) is correct: Figs and fig wasps depend on each other to reproduce and this is a fantastic example of co- evolution.
Fig wasps, specifically of the chalcidoid subfamily Agao- ninae, are highly specialized gall makers. Female fig wasps enter the syconium, the fig plant’s inflorescence, where they trans- fer pollen to concealed flowers and lay eggs in some. As the flowers swell, larvae feed on
both embryo and endosperm. Male wasps emerge first, mating with females still inside the galled flowers. Females later exit, collecting pollen, some- times storing it in special body cavities, and leave through holes chewed by males. Male fig wasps, lacking wings with underdeveloped eyes and anten- nae, possess disproportionately large legs and man-dibles. Numeous parasitic Hymeno- ptera are associated with figs, some developing on fig tissues and others acting as parasites of fig wasps.
49.(C) In the battleground of nature, many animals have evolved mechanisms to both eat and avoid being eaten. This inclu- des the production of chemical toxins, which may be used to incapacitate prey and make it easier to catch and eat, or to defend themselves from would be predators.
Butterflies : Generally, butter- flies are not poisonous to humans. However, some species,
especially caterpillars, can be toxic if ingested due to toxins they acquire from the plants they feed on. These toxins are primarily a defense mechanism against predators rather than inherent toxicity in the butterfly itself.
Fish : Many species of fish, particularly in tropical waters, can be poisonous or venomous. Examples include the lionfish, stonefish, and pufferfish (fugu). These fish produce toxins either in their flesh or through spines that can cause serious harm or even death if consumed or if stung.
Frogs : Some frogs, especially those in the family Dendroba- tidae (poison dart frogs), are known for their toxicity. These frogs secrete toxins through their skin, which can be lethal to predators. However, not all frogs are poisonous; many are harmless to humans.
50.(A)
51.(A) Statement 1 is correct: The central Sahel region, encompa- ssing Burkina Faso, Mali, Mauritania and Niger, is facing a severe humanitarian and pro- tection crisis that has already driven millions of people from their homes.
Statement 2 is Correct: The political, security and economic situation, characterized by repeated coups d’état, an intense and expanding armed conflict and extreme poverty, is expес- ted to deteriorate further in 2024.
- (D) 53. (A)
54.(B) Article 107 of the Indian Constitution mentions certain circumstances under which a bill lapses. when a bill lapses, it no longer remains before Parlia- ment. In such a situation, the bill must be reintroduced and all procedures must be followed again.
Circumstances related to the lapse of a bill:
- A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on the dissolu- tion of the Lok Sabha whether the bill was originated in the Lok Sabha or it came to the
Lok Sabha after being trans- mitted from the Rajya Sabha.
▪A bill passed by the Lok Sabha which is pending in “the Rajya Sabha will lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
▪A bill which has originated in the Rajya Sabha and which is pending in the Rajya Sabha and has not been passed by the Lok Sabha will not lapse.
▪ A bill which has been passed by both the Houses and has been presented to the Presi- dent for assent will not lapse.
▪ A bill returned by the Presi- dent for reconsideration will not lapse.
▪A bill regarding which the President has given notice of his intention to convene a joint sitting of the Houses will not lapse on the dis- solution of the Lok Sabha.
▪ All motions, resolutions, amendments etc. pending in the Lok Sabha lapse on its dissolution.
55.(C) The session of the House is prorogued by the President. The President performs this task on the advice of the Council of Ministers. When the House is adjourned sine die, it is usually followed by prorogation, but there is no restriction on the President proroguing the House while it is in session. It is note- worthy that prorogation ends the session.
Dissolution is also within the President’s power. Except in exceptional circumstances, the President performs this task on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
56.(C) On 25 April, 2024, the European Parliament adopted in plenary with 361 votes in favour, 121 against and 45 abstentions the Net Zero Industry Act. The EU has set itself a legally binding target of achieving net-zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
- (D)
58.(D) Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme erst- while National Land Record Modernisation Programme was revamped and converted as a Central Sector Scheme with effect from 1st April, 2016 with 100% funding by the rentre Digitisation of cadestral Maps/ FMBs/Tippans is one of the components of DILRMP. In order to address the problem of linguistic barriers in land gover nance, the Government with the technical support of centre for development of advanced com- puting Pune, has undertaken an initiative to transliterate the Records of Rights available in local language to any of the 22 schedule VIII languages of the Constitution of India.
59.(B) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan aims to provide assured, comprehensive and quality antinatal care free of cost, universally to all pregnant women on the 9th of every month in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy. State- ment-1 is partially correct as it is 6 not intended to provide post- 6 delivery healthcare. The pro- gramme follows a systematic approach for engagement with private sector which includes motivating private practitioners to volunteer for the campaign developing strategies for generating awareness and appealing to the private sectors to partici- pate in the Abhiyan at govern- ment health facilities.
60.(B) Entry age under the PM- SYM is between 18 and 40 years. Statement-1 is incorrect. PM- SYM is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for the workers of unorganised sector. Statement-2 is correct. Statement-3 is also correct but state- ment-4 is incorrect as family pension is not applicable for unmarried daughters.
61.(C)
62.(D) The ninth edition of the joint military exercise ‘Mitra Shakti- 2023’ concluded in Aundh (Pune). The exercise was con- ducted from 16 November to 29 November, 2023. The Indian contingent of 120 personnel was represented mainly by soldiers of the Maratha Light Infantry Regiment in this military exercise.
- (C)
64.(B) According to Article 342(1) of the Indian Constitution, “The President may, with respect to any State or Union Territory and where it is a State, after con- sultation with the Governor, by public notification, specify tribes or tribal communities or parts or groups of tribes or tribal com- munities as Scheduled Tribes in relation to that State or Union Territory.”
65.(B) Article 112 says that every year the Annual Financial Statement is caused to be laid before both houses of Parlia- ment by the President of India. So, the Union Finance Minister presents the budget on behalf of the President. The provisions will come into effect after the completion of the first delimita- tion exercise undertaken after the commencement of the bill. Hence, statement I is not correct.
66.(D) 67. (B)
68.(A) Statement I is correct: The Suez- Mediterranean Pipeline (SUMED) is a strategic route for transporting oil and natural gas from the Persian Gulf to Europe. It’s a 200-mile long pipeline in Egypt that runs from the Gulf of Suez to the Mediterranean Sea. The pipeline acts as an alter- native to the Suez Canal. Statement II is correct: The SUMED pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. It transports crude oil north through Egypt and has a capa- city of 2.5 million barrels per
69.(C) Statement 1 is correct: The Red Sea region receives very little precipitation in any form. The Red Sea is between arid land, desert and semi desert. Statement 2 is correct: The Red Sea is one of the saltiest bodies of water in the world, owing to high evaporation and low preci- pitation; no significant rivers or streams draining into the sea, and its southern connection to the Gulf of Aden, an arm of the
Indian Ocean, is narrow.
70.(D) The largest source of SO2 in the atmosphere is the burning of fossil fuels by power plants and other industrial facilities. Smal- ler sources of SO2 emissions include industrial processes such as extracting metal from ore; natural sources such as volcanoes; and locomotives, ships and other vehicles and heavy equipment that burn fuel with a high sulfur content.
71.(D) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was made the interim President (temporary) of the Constituent Assembly on 9 December, 1946. After this, on 11 December, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Constituent Assembly.
72.(A) The Government of India Act 1935 proposed a federal structure for India, in which powers were divided between the Central government and the provinces. It provided for a federal structure with a strong Central government, creating a bicameral federal legislature. By the Act of 1935, dual rule was abolished at the provincial level and it was implemented at the center and subjects like defense and foreign affairs were put under the direct control of the
Governor General.
- (C) 74. (C)
75.(B) In 2023, both Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas were included in the UNESCO World Heritage List. Rani-ki-Vav and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya were included in previous years.
76.(D) According to Article 368 of the Constitution, notwithstan- ding anything contained in this Constitution, Parliament may, in exercise of its constitutional power, amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, alteration or repeal in accordance with the procedure laid down in this article.
77.(A) Japan’s 28%, Italy’s 23% and South Korea’s 15-1% population is in the age group 65 and above. These countries are facing the problem of aging population.
78.(C) Article 109 of the Indian Constitution deals with the special procedure with respect to Money Bill. Money Bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha and not in Rajya Sabha. Money Bill can be introduced or pro- posed only on the recommen- dation of the President.
All or any of the recommen- dations made by the Rajya Sabha in respect of a money bill may be accepted or rejected by the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha is not bound to accept the recommendations.
79.(D) Equivalent Ranks in the Indian Armed Forces.
Air Force-> Army-> Navy
▪Marshal of the Indian
Air Force->Field Marshal->Admiral of the Fleet
▪Air Chief Marshal-> General->Admiral
▪Air Marshal-> Lieutenant General (Army Commander/VCOAS)-> Vice Admiral/FOC in C/VCNS
▪Air Vice Marshal-> Lieutenant General->Vice Admiral
▪Air Commodore-> Brigadier->Captain
▪Group Captain-> Colonel->Captain
▪Wing Commander->
Lieutenant Colonel->
Commander
▪Squadron Leader-> Majore->Lieutenant Commander
▪Flight Lieutenant-> Captain->Lieutenant
Flying Officer-> Lieutenant–>sub Lieutenant
▪Flight Cadet
80.(D) The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by North Eastern Council Act, 1971 initially as apex level advisory Body, for securing balanced and coordinated development and facilitating effective coordina- tion amongst seven States of North Eastern Region. Sub- sequent to the amendment of NEC Act in December, 2002 (Notified on 23rd June, 2003) Sikkim was added as 8th Member State, and NEC was mandated to function as a stafu- tory Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern Region. The Council comprises of Governors and Chief Ministers of Consti- tuent States and three members to be nominated by. the President as per clause (iii) of Section 3 of the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 1971. The Union Home Minister is ex- Officio Chairman and the Minister DoNER is the ex- Officio Vice-Chairman of the NEC.
81.(D) The USA government debt is not backed by any hard assets,but only faith by the government.
It happened only four times 1862, 1933, 1968 and 1971, when the USA failed in its commit- ment to honour the redemption of treasury bonds. However, it managed the situation by allowing the federal reserve to print more dollars.
82.(C) Syndicated loan is a form of loan business in which two or more lenders jointly provide loans for one or more borrowers on the same loan terms and with different duties and sign the same loan agreement.
Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement-I is correct.
Syndicated loan can involve a fixed amount of funds, a credit time, or a combination of two.
83.(D) Digital rupee is not insured against inflation as it is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI in aligned with its monetary policy.
84.(B) Gautam Buddha was born in Lumbini near Kapilvastu (in present- day Nepal) in 566 BC. He was the son of Shuddho- dhana and Mahamaya. Shudd- hodhana was the head of the Shakya dynasty. For this reason Buddha was also called ‘Shakya- muni’. At the age of 35, he attained enlightenment after 49 days of continuous meditation under a Peepal tree at Uruvela (Bodh Gaya) on the banks of river Niranjana. After enlight- ment he was called Tathagata.
85.(B) Chandraketugarh, an ancient archaeological site in West Bengal, was once a bustling trade hub dating back to the 3rd century BCE. Inamgaon is one of the most intensively and exten- sively excavated and well recon- structed Chalcolithic sites of the Deccan plateau.
Mangadu, in Kerala is a newly discovered prehistoric site where megaliths are found in large numbers. Salihundam, located on the banks of the Vamsadhara River, shot into fame when archaeological excavations here revealed an ancient Buddhist settlement, not rock-cut cave shrines.
86.(A) The Portuguese governor, Albuquerque, sent an agent to offer aid to Krishna Deva in his fight against the Bahmanis in return for Vijayanagar support against the Zamorin of Calicut. He also promised to supply Arab and Persian horses only to Vijayanagar and not to send any to Bijapur. But Krishna did not immediately accept the offer. The second Portuguese ambas- sador to Krishna Deva renewed the Portuguese governor’s request to erect a fort at Bhatkal and succeeded in his mission. This was after Albuquerque had attacked and captured Goa in 1510.
87.(B) In 1820, the then Governor of Madras, Thomas Munro, started the Ryotwari system. This system was implemented in Madras, Bombay and some parts of Assam. About 51 per cent of the land came under the Ryotwari system. In this, ownership rights of land were given to the ryots or farmers. Now the farmers themselves were responsible for paying land revenue to the company. In this system, land revenue was determined not on the basis of yield but on the basis of area of land.
Cornwallis started the ‘Perma- nent Settlement’ with the aim of removing the defects of the monopoly system implemented by Warren Hastings in Bengal in 1772. This system was imple- mented in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Banaras and North Karnataka.
Under the Permanent Settlement, the landowners were made the permanent owners of the land. Under the Permanent Settlement, the landowners used to give one tenth (10/11th) of the total amount collected from the farmers to the company and kept the remaining 1/11th for themselves. If a zamindar did not deposit the fixed amount of land revenue by the stipula- ted date, his zamindari was auctioned.
88.(A) The Upanishads contain paralles and stories that are used to explain philosophical con- cepts and teachings. The Upani- shads were compose of between 700 and 800 BCE, making them older than the Puranas.
- (A)
90.(C) In December 2023, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) officially inscribed the iconic Garba dance of Gujarat on its prestigious Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity (ICH) during its 18th session of the Intergovernment Committee in Botswana is included.
91.(D) Delimitation commissions have been set up four times in the past-1953, 1962, 1972 and 2002 under Delimitation Com- mission Acts of 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
92.(A) The Eighth Schedule lists the official languages of the Republic of India. Articles 343 to 351 in Part XVII of the Indian Constitution deal with official languages. Originally 14 langu- ages were included in the Con- stitution. Later, other languages were added to the Constitution through various constitutional amendments, taking the total number to 22 at present.
▪The 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967 added Sindhi language to Eighth Schedule. the
▪The 71st Amendment Act, 1992 added Konkani, Mani- puri and Nepali.
▪The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 (effec- tive from 2004) added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule.
93.(B) All India Jan Sangh was established on 21 October, 1951 in Delhi. Its three founding mem- bers were Shyama Prasad Mukherjee, Professor Balraj Madhok and Deendayal Upadhyay. The election symbol of this party was Deepak. It had won 3 seats in the parliamentary elections of 1952, in which Dr. Mukherjee himself was also included.
The Congress Socialist Party was founded in 1934 by Jai Prakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia and Acharya Narendra Dev.
Congress for Democracy (CFD) was an Indian political party founded in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram. It was formed by Jagjivan Ram, Hemwati Nandan Bahu- guna and Nandini Satpathy after they left Indira Gandhi’s Indian National Congress and condemned her rule during the Indian Emergency.
Swatantra Party was a political party in India which was foun- ded by Chakraborty Rajagopala- chari in August 1959.
94.(D) The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 gave constitutional status to muni- cipalities in the Indian Consti- tution and through this Amend- ment ‘Part 9A’ was added to the Constitution. Aman Through this Amendment ‘Part 9A’ was added to the Constitution.Through this Amendment, the 12th Schedule was inserted in the Constitution and 18 subjects to be assigned to the municipality were included.
Emergency provisions are mentioned in Articles 352 to 360 in Part XVIII (18) of the Constitution.
The only Article 368 contained in Part-XX (20) of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of the Parliament and the process of amendments in the Constitution.
95.(C) Inter-State trade and com- merce comes under the Union List of the 7th Schedule of the Constitution.
Inter-State migration comes under the Union List of the 7th Schedule of the Constitution.
Inter-State quarantine comes under the Union List of the 7th Schedule of the Constitution. Corporation tax comes under the Union List of the 7th Schedule of the Constitution.
96.(D) In Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) Vs. Union of India, the Supreme Court declared that privacy is a constitutionally pro- tected right under the guarantee of life and personal liberty in Article 21 of the Constitution.
97.(D)、
98.(C) Operation Sadbhavana (Goodwill) is a unique humane initiative by Indian Army to upliftment of the local popula- tion in remote areas undertaken. Some of the objectives achieved through ‘Operation SADBHA- VANA’ are national integration tours, women empowerment, employment generation, educa- tion and development activities towards nation building.
99.(A) The longest border between two countries is between USA and Canada which is about 8893 km. The border length between Kazakhstan and Russia is about 7644 km, between Chile and Argentina is about 6691 km and about 3488 km between India and China.
- (C) The idea of an Ethics Com- mittee for both the Houses was first mooted in the Presiding Officers’ Conference held in Delhi in 1996. But it was constituted as an ad-hoc Ethics Committee in 2000 by the late Speaker GMC Balayogi, which became a permanent part of the House only in 2015.
Any person can make a com- plaint to the Committee regarding alleged unethical behaviour or violation of the code of conduct by a member or alleged misrepresentation interests of a member.
The Committee shall not consider any matter which is sub- judice and the decision of the Committee whether such a matter is sub-judice or not shall be deemed to be final for the purposes of this rule.
